ABOUT UNDERSTANDING JESUS AND CHRISTIANITY
According to most Christians, Jesus was God-incarnate, full man
and full God. Can the finite and the infinite be one? "To be full"
God means freedom from finite forms and from helplessness, and to
be "full man" means the absence of divinity.
1.To be son is to
be less than divine and to be divine is to be no ones son. How
could Jesus have the attributes of sonship and divinity
assert that Jesus claimed to be God when they quote him in John 14:9: "He
that has seen me has seen the Father". Didn't Jesus clearly say
that people have never seen God, as it says in John 5:37: "And
the father himself which has sent me, has borne witness of me. You
have NEITHER HEARD HIS VOICE AT ANY TIME NOR SEEN HIS SHAPE"?
that Jesus was God because he was called Son of God, Son of Man,
Messiah, and "savior". Ezekiel was addressed in the Bible as Son
of Man. Jesus spoke of "the peace makers" as Sons of God. Any
person who followed the Will and Plan of God was called SON OF GOD
in the Jewish tradition and in their language (Genesis 6:2,4; ; Psalm 2:7; ). "Messiah"
which in Hebrew means "God's anointed" and not "Christ", and
"Cyrus" the person is called "Messiah" or "the anointed". As for "savior",
inII KINGS 13:5,
other individuals were given that title too without being gods. So
where is the proof in these terms that Jesus was God when the word
son is not exclusively used for him alone?
that Jesus acknowledged that he and God were one in the sense of
nature when he says in"I and my father
are one". Later on inJohn 17:21-23, Jesus refers to his followers and
himself and God as one in five places. So why did they give the
previous "one" a different meaning from the other five "ones?
three-in-one and one in three simultaneously or one at a time?
6.If God is one
and three simultaneously, then none of the three could be the
complete God. Granting that such was the case, then when Jesus was
on earth, he wasn't a complete God, nor was the "father in Heaven"
a whole God. Doesn't that contradict what Jesus always said about
His God and our God in heaven, his Lord and our Lord ? Does that
also mean that there was no complete god then, between the claimed
crucifixion and the claimed resurrection?
7.If God is one
and three at a time, then who was the God in heaven when Jesus was
on earth? Wouldn't this contradict his many references to a God in
Heaven that sent him?
8.If God is three
and one at the same time, who was the God in Heaven within three
days between the claimed crucifixion and the claimed resurrect
that: "The Father(F) is God, the Son(S) is God, and the Holy
Ghost(H) is God, but the Father is not the Son, the Son is not the
Holy Ghost, and the Holy Ghost is not the Father". In simple
arithmetic and terms therefore, if F = G, S = G, and H = G, then
it follows that F = S = H, while the second part of the statement
suggests that F � S � H (meaning, "not equal"). Isn't that a
contradiction to the Christian dogma of Trinity in itself ?
10.If Jesus was
God, why did he tell the man who called him "good master" not to
call him "good" because accordingly, there is none good but his
God in Heaven alone?
11. Why do
Christians say that God is three-in-one and one in three when
Jesus says in Mark 12:29:
"The Lord our God is one Lord" in as many places as yet in the
12.If belief in the
Trinity was such a necessary condition for being a Christian, why
didn't Jesus teach and emphasize it to the Christians during his
time? How were those followers of Jesus considered Christians
without ever hearing the term Trinity? Had the Trinity been the
spinal cord of Christianity, Jesus would have emphasized it on
many occasions and would have taught and explained it in detail to
that Jesus was God as they quote inJohn 1:1"In the
beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word
was God". This is John speaking and not Jesus. Also, the Greek
word for the first occurrence of God is HOTHEOS which means "the
God" or "God" with a capital "G", while the Greek word for its
second occurrence is "TONTHEOS", which means "a god " or "god"
with a small "g". Isn't this dishonesty and inconsistency on the
part of those translating the Greek Bible? ? Isn't such quotation
in John 1:1recognized by every Christian scholar of the Bible to have been
written by a Jew named Philo Alexandria way before Jesus and John?
14. Wasn't the
word "god" or "TONTHEOS" also used to refer to others as well as
in II Corinthians 4:4"(and the Devil is) the god of this world" and in Exodus 7:1"See ,
I have made thee (Moses ) a god to Pharaoh"?
Christians say that "GOD LOST His only son to save us". To whom
did God lose Jesus if he owns the whole universe?
15.If it was
agreeable with God's Majesty to have sons, He could have created a
million sons the like of Jesus. So what is the big clear deal
about this only son?
16.Why does the
Bible say that Jesus wanted to die on the cross, when the one on
the cross was shouting "My God, my God, why have you forsaken me?"
according to Matthew 27:45 and?
17.If God had
wanted to save us, couldn't He have done that without sacrificing
18.God is Just, and
justice requires that nobody should be punished for the sins of
others, nor should some people be saved by punishing other people.
Doesn't the claim that God sacrificed Jesus to save us because He
was Just, contradict the definition of justice?
things they have to get something they don't have when they can't
have both. Christians say that "God SACRIFICED His only son to
save us". We know that God is Almighty; to whom did He sacrifice
20.A real sacrifice
is when you can't get back what you have offered, so what would be
the big deal about such a sacrifice if God could recover the same
offering? (According to the Christians' terminology)?
21.If all the
Christians are saved through Jesus and are going to Heaven no
matter what they do, then the teachings of Jesus are irrelevant
and the definition of good and bad are also rendered irrelevant.
If this is not so, then do Christians who believe in Jesus yet do
not follow his teachings nor repent go to Hell?
Christians take deeds as irrelevant after becoming one when Jesus
says in Matthew 12:36;
"But I say unto you that every idle word that men shall speak,
they shall give account thereof in the Day of Judgment. For by the
words thou shalt be justified, and by the words thou shalt be
that people go to Heaven ONLY THROUGH JESUS, yet Paul says in 1 CORINTHIANS 7:8-16 that the unbelieving husband is acceptable to God because he is
united with his wife and vice versa, and their pagan children are
also acceptable to God. So people can go to heaven without
believing in Jesus according to this.
24.How come the
Bible says that ALL
although they don't believe in Jesus? Doesn't that contradict the
claim in the Bible that the only way to heaven is through Jesus?
Christians, those who have not been baptized will go to Hell. So
even the infants and babies go to Hell if not baptized, since they
are born with an inherited original sin. Doesn't this contradict
the definition of justice? Why would God punish people for sins
they never committed?
The only place in the Bible where the Paraclete was called the
Holy Spirit is in John 14:26 "But the Paraclete, the Holy Spirit, whom the
Father will send in my name, he will teach you all things and
bring to your remembrance all that I have said to you". What has
the Holy Spirit brought or taught for the last 2000 years?
26. Christians say that the Paraclete means the Holy Spirit
Jesus said in John 16:7-8 "If I do not go away the Paraclete will not come to you". This
could not mean the Holy spirit, since the Holy spirit was said to
have been there before Jesus was even born as in Luke 1:41"Elizabeth was filled with the Holy Spirit". Here, the Holy Spirit
was also present during Jesus life time. So how could this fit
with the condition that Jesus must go away so that the Holy Spirit
27.In John 16:7-8, it
says: "But if go, I will send him to you. And when he comes, he
will convict the world of sins and of righteousness and of
Judgment". What do "he" and "him" refer here? Don't they refer to
28.Does the Holy
Spirit talk to good Christians and bad Christians as well? Is the
Holy Spirit with them all the time or just at certain times? When
does it start visiting a person who wants to become a Christian?
29.How can you as a
Christian tell if the Holy Spirit is inside another Christian? How
come many Christians fooled people by claiming that the Holy
Spirit was inside them only to be converted to another religion
later on ?
30.Does the Holy
Spirit dictate what Christians should do without choice or freedom
at all or does it only guide them and they have the freedom to
follow or not ?
31. If the Holy
Spirit dictates what Christian should do, why do Christians commit
sins and make mistakes ? How can you explain the conversion to
other religions and atheism of many Christians? Are they told to
do that by the Holy Spirit?
32.If the Holy
Spirit guides Christians only, and they are free to do what they
want, then how do we know that the writers of the Gospels didn't
make mistakes in writing them?
believe that the Holy Spirit comes and talks to them everyday, why
don't they ask the Holy Spirit about which version of the Bible to
follow since there are too many versions floating around?
Without borrowing from other religions and systems, can
Christianity provide people with a complete way of life? Since
Christianity is limited to spiritual life and does not provide
law, how can a society decide which laws are right or wrong?
34.Why do the
Christians say that Jesus came with a universal mission when he
said that he was sent to the Jews only? He said to the Canaanite
woman who asked him to heal her daughter from demon-possession: "I
was sent ONLY to the lost sheep of
Israel" and also said:
"It is not right to take the children's bread and toss it to their
dogs",Matthew 15:21 -28.
�Matthew (28)andJohn (20)reported that Mary Magdalene and the other Mary were the first to
discover the tomb.
� Mark (16)reports that
Mary Magdalene, Mary the mother of James, and Salome were the
first to discover the empty tomb.
� Mark (28)reports that
there was an earthquake that removed the rock from over the tomb.
He says that an angel caused it. The other gospels do not mention
of an earthquake.
� Matthew and Mark
say that only ONE man in white clothes was sitting on the tomb
when the woman arrived, and that he was an angel.
� Luke says that
TWO men in white clothes, who were angels, were sitting. Johns
says that the two women did not meet anybody the first time they
came to the tomb, but when they returned, they saw TWO people, ONE
was an ANGEL, and the other was JESUS.
� Matthew reports
that when the guards reported this to the chief priest, the chief
priest paid them a large sum of money, telling them: "You have to
say that his disciples came at night and stole his body." He
claims that the soldiers took money and spread the story around
and since then, the story had been circulating among the Jews
until today (according to Matthew). The other gospels do not
report of any such thing.
narration now is more authentic?
36. Why is the
appearance of Jesus after the crucifixion taken as a proof of his
resurrection when there is an explanation that he was not dead
because someone else was crucified in his place when God saved
37. How did
Matthew know of the claimed agreement between the soldiers and the
chief priest? Can't someone say that someone paid the women a
large sum of money and told them to spread the word around that
Jesus rose from the dead, with the same authenticity as that of
the story of Matthew?
38.Why did they
believe that man in the white clothes? Why did they believe he was
an angel? John's narration is too strange, since he says that Mary
did not recognize Jesus (one of the two) while talking to him, and
she only recognized him when he called her by her name.
39. How does an
empty tomb prove that Jesus was crucified ? Isn't it that God is
capable of removing another man from the tomb, and of resurrecting
40.The Gospels are
believed to be the verbatim words of God, they are supposed to be
dictated by the Holy Spirit to the Disciples who wrote them. If
the source were the same, why shouldn't they correspond with each
other in reporting such an important event?
Matthew, Mark, Luke and John be considered eyewitnesses of
resurrection when the Bible implies that nobody at all saw Jesus
coming out of the tomb?
If the Christians consider the Old Testament as God's Word, why
did they cancel the parts of the Old Testament that dealt with
punishment (example: the punishment for adultery)?
42. Why doesn't Mark 16:9-20 exist in as many versions of the Bible while it exists as a
footnote or between brackets in some other versions? Is a footnote
in the Bible still considered as God's word, especially when it
addresses an important feature like the Ascension?
43. Why does the
books while the
Protestant Bible has only 66? With both
claiming to have the complete Word of God, which one should be
believed and why?
44.Where do those
new translations of the Bible keep coming from when the original
Bible is not even available ? The Greek manuscripts which are
translations themselves are not even similar with each other.
45.How can you take
two gospels from writers who never met Jesus, like Mark and Luke?
46.Why is half of
the New Testament written by a man who never even met Jesus in his
lifetime? PAUL claimed with no proof that he had met Jesus while
on his way from
Damascus. PAUL was the
main enemy of Christianity. Isn't that reason enough to question
the authenticity of what he wrote? Why do the Christians call
those books of the Old Testament "God's Word" when the revisers of
the RSV Bible say that some of the authors are UNKNOWN? They say
that the author of SAMUEL is "UNKNOWN" and that of CHRONICLES is "UNKOWN,
PROBABLY COLLECTED AND EDITED BY EZRA"!
controversial issues in the Bible, how can Christians decide by
two-thirds majority what is God's Word and what is not, as the
prefaces of some Bibles say like that one of the RSV ?
48.Why does Luke in
his gospel report the Ascension on Easter Day, and in the Acts, in
which he is recognized as the author, FORTY days later?
49.The genealogy of
Jesus is mentioned in Matthew and Luke only. Matthew listed 26
forefathers from Joseph to David while Luke enumerated 41
forefathers. Only Joseph matches with Joseph in those two lists.
Not a single other name matches! If these were inspired by God
word by word, how could they be different? Some claim that one is
for Mary and one is for Joseph, but where does it say Mary in
those two Gospels?
50.If Moses wrote
the first books of the Old Testament, how could Moses write his
own obituary? Moses died in the fifth book at age 120 as mentioned
51.In the King
James Version, why does it report SEVEN years of famine in II SAMUEL 24:13 while it reports THREE years of famine inI CHRONICLES 21:12 ?
Why did they change both to THREE years in the New International
Version and other versions?
52.Still In the
same King James Version, why does it say that Jehoiachin was eight
years old when he began to reign in II CHRONICLES 21:12,
while it says EIGHTEEN years inII KINGS 24:8?
Why did they change in both to EIGHTEEN in the new Versions?